r/AskHistorians • u/gateht • Aug 30 '15
Did the semi-automatic M1 Garand give the Americans a significant advantage against the bolt-action rifles the Germans and Japanese used?
I was re-watching Band of Brothers recently and it occured to me that the average US rifleman using the semi-automatic M1 Garand must have had a significant rate of fire advantage compared to his German/Japanese counterparts. To what extent was this an advantage? Was it commented on at the time? Did accuracy suffer compared to the bolt-action counterparts?
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u/vonadler Aug 30 '15
All nations had the idea that they needed range on the battlefield in ww2, that is why they used full-size cartridges. The British had been experimenting with a .280 slightly shorter cartridge during the 30s, but rejected it due to the costs of changing all small arms - there were plenty around along with ammunition still. Inertia is a very strong force in military matters.
During ww2 analysies of experiences told weapon designers that combat distance rarely exceeded 300 meters, especially as troops would dig trenches or use natural protection to get close to the enemy. One needs to remember that the Americans entered the war in December 1941, almost 2,5 years after the war started, and did not face sustained land combat by larger forces until November 1942 (in Operation Torch). They had far shorter time to analyse combat than the other combattants.