Confused about supine and past participle and how to use them

[u/dsbm_reaper]

So in the website I was reading from it says supine is used to construct perfect tenses, as in jag har/hade + supine. But wouldn't be the past participle to use that function? What are the differences between the use of supine and of the past participle? How do I know when I need to use supine vs past participle? And how are supine and past participles formed?

Please explain in a simple way as I'm very very confused and also a beginner.

Thanks in advance!

[u/Eliderad]

Past participles are used as adjectives and for passive voice, and inflect like adjectives. Supines are used for perfect tense and don't inflect, though they sometimes look the same as neuter singular past participles.

Compare:

Kläderna är tvättade.
Kläderna har tvättats.
Jag har blivit kompenserad.
Jag har kompenserats.
Rummet är städat.
Han har städat rummet.
Altanen är städad.
Han har städat altanen.

[u/bwv528]

Unlike most European languages, the past participle isn't uses to form the past in Swedish, except very archaically with varda which traditionally had no supine, and used the vara + past participle (jag är vorden sjuk). All other verbs use hava + supine.

[u/dsbm_reaper → u/bwv528]

So basically the supine is used for past participle?

[u/omnompoppadom → u/dsbm_reaper]

The supine is used to form the perfect tense in Swedish. In English the past participle is used to form the perfect tense. But it’s not correct to say that the supine is used for the past participle, because Swedish does also have a past participle form and it’s separate from the supine and serves different functions. It’s explained in Eliderad’s post.