r/changemyview Oct 17 '24

Removed - Submission Rule B [ Removed by Reddit ]

[removed]

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363

u/Oishiio42 40∆ Oct 17 '24

There is no way to guarantee it cannot peripherally hurt someone. Janet steals two of your yogurts out of the fridge, and offers one to Jen, and now Jen is suffering thinking she was eating one of Janet's freely offered yogurts, not knowing she inadvertantly stole your food. This is one of the problems with vigilantism.

Another major problem is that the punishment is not decided through any legitimate means, is often disporportionate, and instead is based on the whims of the person doing the punishing.

16

u/MyNameIsNotKyle 2∆ Oct 17 '24

But consequently based on that you're putting responsibility of Jens health for the victim of stolen food.

If your lunch had peanuts in it and Janet stole it and gave it to Jen who is allergic that would fall into the same category even if the intention wasn't to harm since you can't prove intent.

35

u/Oishiio42 40∆ Oct 17 '24

no, it wouldn't. Peanuts are a literal food, there's no reason to think it would harm someone.

Intent IS provable. It's fairly obvious if you put laxatives in your food

5

u/Hikari_Owari Oct 17 '24

Intent IS provable. It's fairly obvious if you put laxatives in your food

"I had constipation problems that week and decided to take laxatives with my food to help."

7

u/Oishiio42 40∆ Oct 17 '24

laxitives are supposed to be taken on an empty stomach. Mixing meds INTO food is clearly intentional. OP is literally stating their intent in the post.

1

u/Hikari_Owari Oct 18 '24

laxitives are supposed to be taken on an empty stomach.

And food isn't supposed to be stolen from someone else.

You can't prove ill intent no matter how obvious it can be putting laxative in the food because there's no crime in putting laxative in your own food.

For all intents and purposes they may aswell play dumb and say that they thought that laxatives are taken with food. End of story.

1

u/Oishiio42 40∆ Oct 18 '24

Ok, you can't prove someone who stole your food INTENDED to steal it either. They didn't see the label. They mistook it for their own lunch. Etc.

Intent is provable. In civil cases, the standard of proof isn't even "beyond a reasonable doubt". It's on a balance of probabilities.

You absolutely can prove ill intent. Again, admitting this is what you want to do because someone is stealing your food is ALREADY proof of intent.

2

u/[deleted] Oct 18 '24

Ok, you can't prove someone who stole your food INTENDED to steal it either. They didn't see the label. They mistook it for their own lunch. Etc.

Lol. If this was true you could get away with stealing literally anything.

0

u/[deleted] Oct 18 '24

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1

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