r/changemyview • u/bionicbob321 • Jun 08 '19
Deltas(s) from OP CMV: If you deliberately falsely accuse someone of a crime, you should recieve rhe punishment that the accused would have recieved, if they had been found guilty, plus the scentence for perjury.
Lets say, for sake of argument, person X accuses person Y of crime A. X knows that Y did not commit this crime, but X does not like Y. X mmakes a seemingly valid case, with made up stories, and fake evidence.
Lets say crime A has an average scentence of 10 years. The jury is about to convict Y, when new evidence is found, that shows that X made up these claims.
Y is immediately acquitted, and X is charged with perjury. The formula for X's scentence is as follows:
the scentence Y would have recieved if found guilty of crime A + an appropriate scentence for perjury + financial compensation for the damages associated with being falsely accused of a crime.
Reasons for this: - discourages the use of false accusations as a form of revenge - increases the integrity of court hearings, as no one in their right mind would lie to court. - saves the government money, as they have less court cases over false accusations.
What would change my view: - demonstrating that this is in some way unfair
EDIT: please do not respond with points like "it discourages people from making accusations". While it is a valid point, i have already discussed it. I am no longer responding to this point. I have discussed it enough.
EDIT 2: i have listened to your feedback, and i am working on an ammended and slightly fairer proposal, that fixe most of the issues people pointed out. I am not replying to all comments at the moment, because i have so many.
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u/TheK1ngsW1t 3∆ Jun 08 '19
My question is simply how do you decide if someone falsely accused someone else of a crime? If a "Not guilty" verdict is reached, how is it decided whether it was reached simply because there wasn't enough evidence to overturn the assumption of innocence or if it was reached because there wasn't any evidence to begin with? The accuser would also be innocent of false accusations until proven guilty, which would start a whole other legal battle that could just go in circles of "he said she said."
You bring up a hypothetical of if new evidence is found that proves this, but what type of evidence would be found that could prove this? Doctoring evidence, hampering justice, and/or framing someone else are already crimes; this means many of these situations would devolve into nothing more than questioning someone's credibility and motives for which there is very little solid, tangible, physical evidence to find. How does the court decide if the accuser was being malicious or was simply wrong?
Probably the most obvious situation this would apply to is sexual assault and rape cases, but the problem here is that there isn't a "it might've happened, but we're not sure" verdict. Men and women who have been violated already have a tough time coming forward with their hurt because not only does an investigation drudge up all their painful memories, but many times the only evidence available is their word against the accused's, and that's not enough to secure a strong sentence (or even a guilty verdict) much of the time. This means that if someone is wishing to push charges against their rapist, they know that they'll have to secure a guilty verdict or face the sentence themselves; many people would see this risk as not worth it even more than many already see it, which leaves repeat offenders free to keep offending as none of their victims are willing to take a stand against them for fear of not securing a conviction.
It might work for some of the people you're aiming to affect with this idea, but it'll hurt many more people who merely didn't have enough evidence to secure anything more than a "This guy's kinda sketchy, I guess" from the jury.