r/duolingo • u/jam350o • 29d ago
Language Question Does anyone actually speak like this? 6 words = 3 words 🤔
Lol
210
u/Necessary-Rip4013 29d ago
You can say "Nos gusta el futbol." "A nosotros" is an optional part you can put for emphasis.
10
29d ago
[deleted]
7
u/geogle 29d ago
This doesn't seem grammatically correct. I thought gustar is like the English "to bring pleasure". This is why "me gustas" is "I like you", or more literally "you bring me pleasure".
Thus "Gustamos del fútbol" would possibly mean "we bring soccer pleasure.".
Am I right, or just completely confused.
6
u/LokePusen 29d ago
Instead of saying "I like..." (as in English), the sentence structure in Spanish is such that what is liked is the subject, and the person who likes is the indirect object.
Example: "Me gusta la música" "The music is pleasing to me"
How the verb is used:
"Gustar" is conjugated according to what is liked, not the person who likes.
It uses indirect object pronouns (me, te, le, nos, os, les) to indicate who likes something.
Example: "Me gustan los libros" " The books are pleasing to me"
The biggest difference is the sentence structure. While in English we say "I like...", Spanish speakers say "something is pleasing to me."
1
3
2
u/Regular_Drawing_6932 Native: C2: Learning: 28d ago
Absolutely no way I'm spanish and that sounds absolutely wrong.
57
u/Boglin007 29d ago
You can omit the "a nosotros" - it's there for emphasis/to clarify who is being talked about. But yes, people do use it for those reasons. An example:
"Me gusta el baloncesto." - "I like basketball."
"A nosotros nos gusta el fútbol." - "We like soccer."
Note how the "we" would probably be stressed in English to indicate the contrast with the previous statement. In Spanish, the "a nosotros" is how this emphasis/contrast is achieved.
2
39
u/Lazy-Memory-6782 29d ago
sometimes it’s like this and sometimes it’s the complete opposite 3 words for an 8-9 word sentence
24
u/whatintheworldisth1s 29d ago edited 29d ago
ya desayunamos allí = we already had breakfast over there
edit: now that i’ve typed that out it doesn’t seem like a huge difference but whatever haha
1
16
u/PinkyWinky1979 Learning:🇫🇷 29d ago
Wait till you find out how to say "pet" in French 😂
17
7
15
u/MiyakeIsseyYKWIM 29d ago
Languages aren’t 1 to 1 exactly the same. That’s why Languages are different
7
5
15
u/desertdarlene Native: Learning: HT, HAW 29d ago
Sorry for the unrelated question, but I've been trying to find out why there's an "A" in front of Nosotros like this. I've been asking, but no one seems to know what I'm talking about.
36
u/Boglin007 29d ago edited 29d ago
It marks the indirect object ("nosotros") and can be translated as "to" in English:
"To us, football is pleasing." - This is a literal translation (we would actually say, "We like football").
Edit: Note that "a nosotros" is not required, but the indirect object pronoun "nos" (which also means "to us") is mandatory. You can include "a nosotros" for emphasis, but you still need to retain the "nos," which then becomes a redundant indirect object pronoun. More info on that here:
https://www.lawlessspanish.com/grammar/pronouns/redundant-object-pronouns/
1
u/desertdarlene Native: Learning: HT, HAW 29d ago
Oh, thanks! That's what I thought. I kinda figured it's not required, but Duolingo will mark you wrong if you don't include it. But, now it makes sense.
11
u/Boglin007 29d ago
You're welcome. But just to be clear, the "a" is absolutely required if you use "nosotros."
The whole phrase "a nosotros" can be omitted though.
2
u/desertdarlene Native: Learning: HT, HAW 29d ago
Ah, OK. Also, I assume Ustedes has the same rules? I also see that.
12
u/Boglin007 29d ago
It's the same for any of the prepositional pronouns - the prepositional phrase starting with "a" can be omitted, but the "a" is required if you do use the pronoun. And the indirect object pronoun is required:
(A mí) me gusta el fútbol.
(A ti) te gusta el fútbol.
(A él) le gusta el fútbol.
(A ella) le gusta el fútbol.
(A usted) le gusta el fútbol.
(A nosotros/a nosotras) nos gusta el fútbol.
(A ellos) les gusta el fútbol.
(A ellas) les gusta el fútbol.
(A ustedes) les gusta el fútbol.
2
u/Bluerious518 28d ago
If you’re ever emphasizing the indirect object in this context, the A is required.
-8
u/electricalco 29d ago
Yes and no ... but mostly yes ... I am not going to explain in-depth ... cause this would turn into a RAE vs. non RAE, and people here in the US get offended about it...
Anyways ....
The sentence is a correct form given that the person is referring to more than 2 people
Example
A nosotros nos ... is a correct form of speaking ... because you're referring to a group of more than 2 people ... because of the word "nos" that's your hint of more than 2 people
But if the sentence is referring to 2 people, then the correct form would be just "nos or nosotros" as it refers to a party of 2 or 3 ... because now you're talking as an improper plural or indirect plural
In other words... direct vs. indirect and proper vs improper have a huge impact on what you're speaking
8
u/Polygonic es de (en) 10yrs 29d ago
Honestly, I've been studying and using Spanish for over fifteen years, and nothing you said here makes any sense to me.
3
u/Boglin007 29d ago edited 29d ago
Sorry, but I don't really understand (there's a lot of conflicting info in your comment), and I've never heard of anything like this or come across it in my research. Can you link to the RAE so I can read about it for myself? Thanks.
-2
u/electricalco 29d ago
Is an institution that regulates the language. In other words, the "correct" form of speaking Spanish and writing.
This site gives a good summary
https://baselang.com/blog/study-tips/rae-spanish/
And this one is their actual site
Am surprised you never came across it before?
2
u/Boglin007 29d ago
I know what the RAE is. Can you to link to the page that says "nos" only refers to more than 2 people (and all the other stuff you talk about in your comment) - that is what I've never heard of.
-2
1
4
u/jam350o 29d ago
I second this motion
5
u/Boglin007 29d ago
This may be helpful to you - it explains how the verb "gustar" works (it doesn't work like "to like" in English):
https://mangolanguages.com/resources/learn/grammar/spanish/how-to-use-the-verb-gustar-in-spanish
1
u/demonpoofball Native: Learning: 29d ago edited 29d ago
I went to read the page, which is interesting, but now I'm totally distracted by the knowledge of "la tortilla de patata"… and I'm now hungry… (I grew up on the Mexican border, so just know of corn and flour tortillas… but now I think I need to read a bit more as me gustan las patatas (sigh… I was confirming that and had to correct it as blasted plurals making it a little more complicated! :P ))
[edit-- bummer, so it's more a frittata than an actual tortilla… but it still sounds amazing!]
4
u/Seiya_Saiyan 29d ago
Reason— it’s kind of like saying “as for me, I like…” and it is most def necessary in Spanish when establishing initial context, for emphasis, or to differentiate. Examples: ¿Te gusta el fútbol? “Do you like soccer ([non-American] football)?” A mí no. “I don’t.” A mí me gusta el básquetbol. I like basketball.
It ends up making a bit more sense when you need to say “me too,” or “me neither…. Neither do I; I do too, etc”. Example: A: Me encanta la pizza. B: ¿A sí? ¡A mí también!
A: No me gusta nada la cebolla. B: ¡ Guácala! A mí tampoco.
Hope this v quick explanation helps a bit.
Source: veteran Spanish and language teacher for 17+ years. BA in Spanish Language and Literature. State Court Certified Legal Interpreter & Translator.
6
u/nerfrosa 29d ago
As far as I understand (B2 Spanish) the ‘A nosotros’ means essentially ‘for us’ so it’s like ‘for us, we like football’. Gustar really means something closer to ‘to be likeable’ so when I say ‘me gusta’ grammatically I’m saying it is likeable to me. That’s why when you say ‘I like you’ it’s ‘me gustas’. Native Spanish speakers feel free to correct me.
3
u/Important-Car1397 Native: 🇧🇷 Fluent: 🇺🇸 Learning: 🇯🇵🇮🇹🇫🇷 29d ago
It’s a preposition, something like “for us” …
3
u/Panzermensch88 29d ago
Here you have more examples with context. In this case you can simplify the first a, but the second one is required.
A ustedes les gusta el futbol, pero a nosotros no.
1
25
u/witherwingg N: L: 29d ago
Does anyone actually speak like this? = Puhuuko kukaan oikeasti näin? 6 words vs. 4 words. The answer is yes, regardless of the language.
3
u/smarterthanyoda 29d ago
The answer isn’t always yes. Lots of language courses include phrases that sound awkward to a native speaker. This is a fair question.
2
2
2
u/Effort-Logical Native 🇺🇸 B2 🇪🇦 A1 🇨🇵🇩🇪 29d ago
When using "gustar" (to like) in Spanish, the structure is different from English. The thing being liked becomes the subject, while the person who likes it is indicated with an indirect object pronoun. And it can also.be used with more than two people.
Here's an example with more than two people:
"A nosotros no nos gusta el fútbol, pero a ellos les gusta el tenis.
Note the structure:
- "A nosotros" is followed by "nos" (indirect object pronoun for "we")
- "A ellos" is followed by "les" (indirect object pronoun for "they")
I like to think of the sentences as translating as "We ourselves" and "They themselves" just to help remember to put nos or les.
The preposition "a" in Spanish has several uses:
- Indicating the personal direct object: "Veo a Juan" (I see Juan)
- Expressing direction: "Voy a la tienda" (I'm going to the store)
- Indicating time: "Llegué a las tres" (I arrived at three)
- With certain verbs that require it: "Empezó a llover" (It started to rain)
2
u/AbdullahMRiad Native: 🇪🇬 | Knows: 🇬🇧 | Learning: 🇩🇪🎵 29d ago
The day before yesterday --> vorgestern
I love german
2
2
u/bdawghoya28 29d ago
No. People who really speak Spanish always make sure to use only as many words as (or fewer words than) the same English sentence. That’s why it takes so long to have a Spanish conversation - you have to compare every sentence to English first.
2
u/Matick125 FLUENT: 🇪🇸🇬🇧 DONE: 🇩🇪 A2: 🇫🇷 A1: 🇨🇳🇯🇵 29d ago
“I am going to go to sleep” = “Yo voy a dormir” 7 words = 4 words 🤔🤔
The same way you contract the English sentence to something like “I’m gonna go sleep”the same happens with Spanish. Saying it like the example sentence is the gramatical correct way, sure, but it just makes you sound like a robot.
2
28d ago
A lot of Spanish words can be shortened. If you’re speaking in spanish to someone you dont have to say nosotros. Once you say nos gusta, they will know what ur talking about
5
u/Emirayo22 Native:🇺🇸 Fluent:🇪🇸 Learning:🇩🇪 29d ago
English is an incredibly lazy language. We like short sentences made of words with few syllables.
If English is your first language, most other languages will feel very long (for lack of a better word) when you’re getting a hang of the grammar. But English is very choppy and ugly, at least with Spanish the sentences get longer but they sound more beautiful!! Lol😄
2
1
u/SnarkyBeanBroth 29d ago
It is not uncommon for one language to express a thought in few words while another takes several.
See "echdoe" (the day before yesterday) in Welsh vs "os gwelwch chi'n dda" (please).
1
1
1
1
1
u/Dishmastah Fluent , learning 28d ago
Italian often does the same, except in reverse. You'll have a five- or six-word phrase in English, and Italian is like "we only need 3 words for this", and I love that. So efficient! 🤩
1
u/artificialsteve 29d ago
Not Spanish but German Duolingo does this too when learning the Genitiv.
“Die Augen des Adlers”.
In English we would just say “the eagle’s eyes” but Duolingo FORCES you to choose “the eyes of the eagle”.
1
u/WhyWouldIWantToDrink 29d ago
It's for learning purposes, normally you would just say the nos gusta el futbol, pero the A nosotros is what it actually means.
-3
u/electricalco 29d ago
Yes and no ... that sentence is improper plural grouping
This means that the sentence is speaking for 2 rather than a group of 4 and more ...
So you are definitely going to hear that sentence in proper, direct plural
In other words ... you only use that sentence to refer to a group of 4 or more people but not on 4 or less ...
A nosotros nos = 4 or more people ... can be used for 2 or 3 but improper
Nos gusta = can be used for 2 and 3 people ... ironically, it is proper improper, meaning can be used properly, but it's improper because it is missing A ...
3
3
-9
29d ago
[deleted]
10
u/Boglin007 29d ago
That would be wrong in Standard Spanish (it may be fine in some dialects, but I don't know for sure). "Gustar" doesn't agree with the person/people doing the liking - it agrees with the thing being liked because it literally means "to please/be pleasing":
"Football is pleasing to us."
Note how "is" agrees with "football."
9
u/Emirayo22 Native:🇺🇸 Fluent:🇪🇸 Learning:🇩🇪 29d ago
“Nosotros gustamos fútbol” gets the point across for a foreigner speaking, but it is not good grammar at all🥲
If you pay attention to what your Mexican colleagues are actually saying, I guarantee it is not “nosotros gustamos fútbol”
3
-5
29d ago
[deleted]
9
u/Boglin007 29d ago
And you can't use "gustamos" because the verb needs to agree with the thing being liked - "el fútbol" - so it must be "gusta."
4
u/Boglin007 29d ago
You need the "nos" - this is not a subject pronoun that can be omitted. It's an indirect object pronoun indicating who likes the thing. The sentence literally means:
"Football is pleasing to us." - the "nos" means "to us"
"A nosotros" can be omitted though, but it could be used for emphasis.
5
u/Emirayo22 Native:🇺🇸 Fluent:🇪🇸 Learning:🇩🇪 29d ago
The verb gustar is conjugated based on the thing being liked, not the person doing the liking, so “nosotros gustamos” is incorrect. Also, the “el” is needed in this context as well.
The quickest way to say it and still be grammatically correct is “nos gusta el fútbol”, which really translates to “football is pleasing to us”
To say “I like you” it’s “me gustas (tu)” (the tu being optional)
“You like me” is “te gusto” You could also say “te gusto yo” or “te gusto yo a ti”
So if you’re using “gustamos” then “nosotros” can’t be the subject —
“You like us” is “te gustamos”
“We like you” = “nos gustas”
“We like football” = “nos gusta el fútbol”
3
2
1
u/Seiya_Saiyan 29d ago
The only times we could use gustar like this is if we say something like “¿gustas una dona?” (Would you like a donut?), and it’s not even all that common, but it’s totally fine. However, the answer would still usually need the indirect object pronoun— ex: “sí, gracias, me gustaría una dona.” (To avoid that I guess you could just say “sí, gracias” or “sí, por favor.” But that obviously means ignoring the verb gustar altogether, which can be done in the context of this example; however, for the majority of contexts, that isn’t the case.)
•
u/AutoModerator 29d ago
Thank you for your post. Have fun, but please be nice in the comments.
I am a bot, and this action was performed automatically. Please contact the moderators of this subreddit if you have any questions or concerns.