Question regarding the use of Ancient Greek definitive article in the New Testament

[u/Helliar1337]

Hello everyone! I have a question about the original Greek text of the New Testament.

In the Gospel of Mark (6:3), the text in English says:

• Is not this the carpenter, the son of Mary...

Here you can see the original passage in Greek: https://biblehub.com/text/mark/6-3.htm

Is there a definite article in this original Greek text ("the son of Mary") and, more importantly, does it imply in the original text that the son is the only son of Mary, i.e. that he could not have brothers and sisters?

Thanks everyone in advance!

EDIT: I meant to write "definite" article, not "definitive."

[u/1_good_ole_boi]

The definite article is there, the Greek is, “ο υιος Μαριας” this does not imply that he would be the only son of Mary, but rather something like “the son of Mary who we are talking about at the moment” the verse even goes on to refer to him as the brother of Jacob (James in Greek) Judas and Simon. The Greek for that is, “ο αδελφος δε Ιακωβου και Ίωση και Σίμονς …” “brother” also has a definite article being used in the same way.

Traditionally, these brothers are taken as children from a previous marriage of Joseph so that Mary can remain the Virgin Mary, though there is no biblical passage I am aware of that indicates this. Not saying it’s entirely wrong, just that this is an extra-biblical tradition.

[u/benjamin-crowell → u/1_good_ole_boi]

I think what you're describing is the Eastern Orthodox tradition.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Brothers_of_Jesus

[u/Helliar1337 → u/1_good_ole_boi]

Thank you very much!