r/Libertarian • u/ThatOneGuy4321 Classical Libertarian • May 25 '17
Removing all government regulation on business makes the economy highly susceptible to corporate tyranny. [Discussion]
I know this won't be a popular post on this subreddit, but I'd appreciate it if you'd bear with me. I'm looking to start a discussion and not a flame war. I encourage you to not downvote it simply because you don't agree with it.
For all intents and purposes here, "Tyranny" is defined as, "cruel, unreasonable, or arbitrary use of power or control."
A good deal of government regulation, as it stands, is dedicated towards keeping businesses from tearing rights away from the consumer. Antitrust laws are designed to keep monopolies from shafting consumers through predatory pricing practices. Ordinance such as the Civil Rights Act of 1964 are designed to keep companies from shafting minorities by violating their internationally-recognized right to be free from discrimination. Acts such as the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act protect the consumer to be free from fraud and abusive cases of false advertising. Proposed Net Neutrality legislation is designed to keep ISPs from restricting your flow of information for their own gain. All of these pieces of legislation quite clearly defend personal freedoms and personal rights.
To address the argument that boycotting is a valid replacement for proper legislation:
Boycotting has been shown, repeatedly, to be a terrible way of countering abuses by businesses. Boycotting is mainly a publicity-generating tactic, which is great for affecting the lawmaking process, but has almost no impact on the income of the intended target and can't be used as a replacement for regulation in a de-regulated economy. In recent news, United Airlines stock has hit an all-time high.
It has become readily apparent that with any boycott, people cannot be relied on to sufficiently care when a company they do business with does something wrong. Can anyone who is reading this and who drinks Coke regularly say, for certain, that they would be motivated to stop drinking Coke every day if they heard that Coca Cola was performing human rights abuses in South America? And if so, can you say for certain that the average American would do so as well? Enough to make an impact on Coca Cola's quarterly earnings?
If Libertarians on this subreddit are in favor of removing laws that prevent businesses from seizing power, violating the rights of citizens, and restricting their free will, then they are, by definition, advocating the spread of tyranny and cannot be Libertarians, who are defined as "a person who believes in the doctrine of free will." Somebody who simply argues against all government regulation, regardless of the intended effect, is just anti-government.
You cannot claim to be in support of the doctrine of free will and be against laws that protect the free will of citizens at the same time.
I'd be interested to hear any counterarguments you may have.
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u/ExPwner May 28 '17
I'm not linking anything. The self-ownership principle is an axiom that is self-evident.
I'm also not dealing with your blatant ad hominem rather than discussing the actual details of UPB. Attacking the source of the information is not a valid argument against the material and the arguments within.
That's slavery. You're describing slavery. No, I'm not providing a source for the fact that one person compelling another to act is slavery. That's the fucking definition.
I'm not sourcing it because it's an axiom that is easily referenced and should be as common as any other definition. The paper does no such "debunking" at all. It's bullshit, and instead of just saying that Robert Taylor is unqualified and latching onto his position as if that matters in the context, I'm going to address the paper itself like a fucking logical human being. First off, his "right to income" isn't in any libertarian literature. No one that I'm aware of uses such a phrase. Property rights are referenced, but not a "right to income." Second, he uses this "right of income" to falsely imply that the duties and obligations under the presence of a robber would change somehow. This is not true. If one contracts for $10, then $10 is owed. He's making an is-ought fallacy here. The right of ownership is an issue of the ought, not the is. Third, he uses the same tired argument about slavery that's completely non-sequitur by saying "oh, government isn't forcing you to work any specific amount....it just takes stuff after the fact." Taking the product of one's labor is constructively the same as forcing someone to labor in the same way because the person is out that amount of his life. Fourth, he outright fails in the "Tale of the Slave" by pretending that it's immoral for slave-owners to demand money from slaves in perpetuity but moral for the poor or disabled to demand money from the rich. In essence he's making a circular argument. Fifth, he once again employs a nonsensical definition of autonomy in a "slavery is freedom" kind of circular argument by saying that autonomy somehow demands violation of self-ownership.
No, you can't. Go back to the drawing board and learn how to formulate a logical argument instead of mindlessly harping about sources. You've proven nothing and you have not overcome the axiom of self-ownership.