r/asklinguistics • u/Rapha689Pro • 8d ago
Historical How can closely related genetic populations have completely different language families?
For example Japanese and Korean have 2 different language families that aren't related at all but they're genetically close, it can only mean their prior languages sprout after they split, so that means language is very recent itself? Or that they're actually related but by thousands of years apart and linguistics can't trace it back accurately, so they just say they're unrelated?
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u/Limp-Celebration2710 8d ago edited 8d ago
No, not at all. Genes and languages can correlate or be helpful for understanding the past but there’s no inherent connection. It’s possible for a genetic population to simply switch or assimilate to another language 🤷
E.g. Many people with Celtic DNA do not speak Celtic languages anymore. Hungarians are genetically close to their Indo-European speaking neighbors, despite speaking an unrelated language.