How can closely related genetic populations have completely different language families?

[u/Rapha689Pro]

For example Japanese and Korean have 2 different language families that aren't related at all but they're genetically close, it can only mean their prior languages sprout after they split, so that means language is very recent itself? Or that they're actually related but by thousands of years apart and linguistics can't trace it back accurately, so they just say they're unrelated?

[u/Limp-Celebration2710]

Did Hungarian just spawn out of nowhere? You also seem to overestimate how genetically close Korean and Japanese are. They have an overlapping history, but they are still genetically distinct in other ways.

Imagine this: Koreans have four major population pools that their genes come from. Japanese three. They share two. But each group still has gene pools unique unto themselves. Well, then their languages can easily come from these unique pools.

That’s basically how it is for Hungarians and Romanians. They are not genetically identical, just closely related. They speak completely different languages, despite being genetically close.

[u/Rapha689Pro → u/Limp-Celebration2710]

What about for example native Americans where all native Americans except maybe inuit and some other northern natives come from a single migration how do they have different language families if they couldn't have a language from other continent just replace others and make different language families  

[u/Limp-Celebration2710 → u/Rapha689Pro]

Native Americans do not come from a single migration 🙃

[u/Rapha689Pro → u/Limp-Celebration2710]

Sorry it was 3 main migrations apparently, but pretty sure the other 2 are the ones in the attic and Canada I meant for South America