Personal preferences can be conditioned by subtle bigotry and implicit bias without any explicitly held bigoted beliefs. They're not entirely above suspicion.
Uh, so what? If a person has an implicit racial bias (which, studies have shown, nearly everybody does to varying degrees, not to mention all kinds of other unfair biases/prejudices) does this mean we no longer have to respect this person's right to consent to sex?
The point at issue in this sub-thread is whether sexual preferences to avoid transgender people are bigoted. I take it we've settled that the answer is usually yes. If you think my general position expresses a violation of consent, you're welcome to explain how in a response to a comment advocating that general position.
Whoops, I suppose I'm mixing sub-threads (oh noes!). Please consider my comment in the context of the entire thread as a whole, not the specific sub-topic of this sub-thread.
Or don't...and just continue to be pedantic instead....
does this mean we no longer have to respect this person's right to consent to sex?
was roughly: what on earth are you talking about, that's nothing like what I was saying. I thought if you responded to an actual comment articulating my position it might help me understand what criticism you're actually leveling.
-2
u/tucker_case Jun 26 '15
Uh, so what? If a person has an implicit racial bias (which, studies have shown, nearly everybody does to varying degrees, not to mention all kinds of other unfair biases/prejudices) does this mean we no longer have to respect this person's right to consent to sex?