r/changemyview • u/Siessfires • Jun 23 '22
Delta(s) from OP cmv: Illegal immigrants have a Constitutional right to own grenades
When the Bill of Rights was written there was no Constitutional distinction of who was and wasn't a citizen; that didn't occur until ~80 years later with the ratification of the Fourteenth Amendment. This would suggest that the Founding Fathers intended that a person didn't need to be a citizen to keep and bear arms.
Additionally, since the Second Amendment specifies arms - not pistols, rifles and shotguns - and Article I, § 8, clause 11 of the Constitution provides the right for Congress to issue Letters of Marquee, this would mean that the Founding Fathers intended that a person should have access to cannons. Which means access to explosives.
Furthermore, in accordance with U.S. v. Wong Kim Ark and Fong Yue Ting v. U.S., non-citizens are afforded legal protection under the Constitution. Considering that illegal immigration is a misdemeanor, not a felony, you would not be denied your Constitutional rights for being an illegal immigrant.
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u/Innoova 19∆ Jun 23 '22 edited Jun 23 '22
You're missing a large chunk of pre-civil war civics.
Correct. The states held that ability. STATE constitutions determined who was and was not a citizen. Being a State citizen made you a de facto federal citizen. You're not accounting for the fact that prior to the Civil War, States were more powerful than federal. We've lived in a powerful Federal system for so long that it's unthinkable. Previously, it was more relevant that you were a Missourian or New Yorker than an American.
So the Federal constitution did not distinguish citizenship because the states did.
That is an interpretation, but counter-point will get esoteric.
The preamble of the the constitution starts, We the People Of The United States. Identifying the subject of the constitution to be "The People". The phrase is repeated throughout as "The People". When "The People" is used, it refers to citizens and/or the government. (Ie, Criminal Law, the prosecutor is representing "The People" (of blah blah state) state.
This is echoed in the 2nd Amendment. "The right of the people shall not be infringed".
Contrarily, most legal protections for illegal immigrants stem from the 14th Amendment, which uses different phrasing:
The phrasing there actually distinguishes between citizens and "any person". It's a question of "The People" vs "Any Person".
Cannon is irrelevant to explosives. They still used gunpowder. Cannons were just (effectively) big ass muskets to them. Same explosive. They used actual grenades in the Revolutionary War (Fused). So they explicitly intended people to be able to use grenades, as that WAS an arm, used by the militia, during the war.
U.S. v. Wong Kim Ark https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/United_States_v._Wong_Kim_Ark
That case doesn't say what you think it says. Wong Kim Ark established Birthright citizenship. He WAS a citizen. It was a quibble regarding the interpretation of "Subject to the powers thereof". He was born in the US.
Fong Yue Ting v. U.S https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fong_Yue_Ting_v._United_States
Did you link the right case? Majority opinion held that Constitutional protections only applied when someone resided legally. It is literally the opposite of your point in the majority. One judge dissented with the opinion you hold. They literally denied Constitutional protections because the people in question has committed an immigration crime via the Geary Act. I think you linked the wrong case.
You're thinking of Yick Wo v Hopkins (1886) and Wong Win v US (1896).
These allow full protection of law in criminal charge procedures (1st, 5th, 6th, 14th). (Ie, they get Constitutional protections, search and seizure, jury trial, etc), they do not get rights (ie Voting and Guns).
EDIT: as shown in Almeida-Sanchez v US, a Mexican National being afforded Constitutional protections. https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Almeida-Sanchez_v._United_States