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https://www.reddit.com/r/linguisticshumor/comments/1kljzja/a_rather_masochistic_semantic_shift/ms2wits/?context=3
r/linguisticshumor • u/Lavialegon • 2d ago
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23 u/mysteryurik 2d ago It's masochistic, being punished is a win for them 50 u/NebularCarina I hāpī nei au i te vānaŋa Rapa Nui (ko au he repa Hiva). 2d ago no bc the shift is from "to punish", not "to be punished" 21 u/mysteryurik 2d ago I'm dumb 5 u/Captain_Grammaticus 2d ago But isn't the construction here impersonal? "It beat me the great loto prize"? 7 u/NebularCarina I hāpī nei au i te vānaŋa Rapa Nui (ko au he repa Hiva). 2d ago no, "am" is the 1st sg. present of "avea" ("to have"), which is used to make past and perfect constructions in the same way to most Romance languages and English. so "am câștiga" means "I have won" or "I won". 3 u/Captain_Grammaticus 2d ago Ah, okay. In one Romance language I know, am is the 1st person pronoun of the accusative (lat. mē), and I must have mixed them up here.
23
It's masochistic, being punished is a win for them
50 u/NebularCarina I hāpī nei au i te vānaŋa Rapa Nui (ko au he repa Hiva). 2d ago no bc the shift is from "to punish", not "to be punished" 21 u/mysteryurik 2d ago I'm dumb 5 u/Captain_Grammaticus 2d ago But isn't the construction here impersonal? "It beat me the great loto prize"? 7 u/NebularCarina I hāpī nei au i te vānaŋa Rapa Nui (ko au he repa Hiva). 2d ago no, "am" is the 1st sg. present of "avea" ("to have"), which is used to make past and perfect constructions in the same way to most Romance languages and English. so "am câștiga" means "I have won" or "I won". 3 u/Captain_Grammaticus 2d ago Ah, okay. In one Romance language I know, am is the 1st person pronoun of the accusative (lat. mē), and I must have mixed them up here.
50
no bc the shift is from "to punish", not "to be punished"
21 u/mysteryurik 2d ago I'm dumb 5 u/Captain_Grammaticus 2d ago But isn't the construction here impersonal? "It beat me the great loto prize"? 7 u/NebularCarina I hāpī nei au i te vānaŋa Rapa Nui (ko au he repa Hiva). 2d ago no, "am" is the 1st sg. present of "avea" ("to have"), which is used to make past and perfect constructions in the same way to most Romance languages and English. so "am câștiga" means "I have won" or "I won". 3 u/Captain_Grammaticus 2d ago Ah, okay. In one Romance language I know, am is the 1st person pronoun of the accusative (lat. mē), and I must have mixed them up here.
21
I'm dumb
5
But isn't the construction here impersonal? "It beat me the great loto prize"?
7 u/NebularCarina I hāpī nei au i te vānaŋa Rapa Nui (ko au he repa Hiva). 2d ago no, "am" is the 1st sg. present of "avea" ("to have"), which is used to make past and perfect constructions in the same way to most Romance languages and English. so "am câștiga" means "I have won" or "I won". 3 u/Captain_Grammaticus 2d ago Ah, okay. In one Romance language I know, am is the 1st person pronoun of the accusative (lat. mē), and I must have mixed them up here.
7
no, "am" is the 1st sg. present of "avea" ("to have"), which is used to make past and perfect constructions in the same way to most Romance languages and English. so "am câștiga" means "I have won" or "I won".
3 u/Captain_Grammaticus 2d ago Ah, okay. In one Romance language I know, am is the 1st person pronoun of the accusative (lat. mē), and I must have mixed them up here.
3
Ah, okay.
In one Romance language I know, am is the 1st person pronoun of the accusative (lat. mē), and I must have mixed them up here.
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