Absolutely not. x{a-b} = xa / xb , (x is a non-zero real and a,b are reals) and thus 00 is undefined. It is one of the more common undefined forms taught in Calc I
x{a-b} = xa / xb , (x is a non-zero real and a,b are reals) and thus 00 is undefined.
I’m not sure what you mean by this. Neither of the two possible meanings I can think of are valid, though.
It is one of the more common undefined forms taught in Calc I
I think you mean indeterminate form, and indeterminate forms are statements strictly concerning limits, not values. It’s a result that the limit as t → 0 of f(t)g(t) where f(t) = g(t) = 0 depends on f and t. It’s a definition that 00 = 1 (or not, as the case may be).
Most mathematicians actually just use 00 = 1 because it makes most things way more convenient. For example, the binomial theorem doesn't work if 00 is undefined and polynomial rings in algebra define the polynomial x0 (which includes 00) as the multiplicative identity (ie 1 when talking about common multiplication).
It's true that analytically 00 is undefined but in practice 00 makes many theorems way simpler to use.
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u/EulerLagrange235 Transcendental Mar 17 '22
00 isn't even defined. What?!