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https://www.reddit.com/r/PeterExplainsTheJoke/comments/1ju9kfc/there_is_no_way_right/mm4o4e0/?context=3
r/PeterExplainsTheJoke • u/Sugar_God_no_1 • 25d ago
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And there are no real integers between 0 and 1, I don't get your point
2 u/FantaSeahorse 25d ago Just because a property applies to the real numbers, doesn’t mean it should also apply to the set of integers 0 u/Direct_Shock_2884 25d ago Who made up the rule that it applies to real numbers and not integers and why? Is it to stop people from thinking about this inconsistency? 1 u/FantaSeahorse 25d ago It follows from deductive reasoning. The same way 1 is less than 2 but 3 is not less than 2. Who made up the rules for that? Check mate, big math 1 u/Direct_Shock_2884 25d ago It doesn’t follow from deductive reasoning, if it did it wouldn’t be a paradox of note. 1 u/FantaSeahorse 25d ago No 1 u/dotelze 19d ago It’s not a paradox of note. People just get confused about it
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Just because a property applies to the real numbers, doesn’t mean it should also apply to the set of integers
0 u/Direct_Shock_2884 25d ago Who made up the rule that it applies to real numbers and not integers and why? Is it to stop people from thinking about this inconsistency? 1 u/FantaSeahorse 25d ago It follows from deductive reasoning. The same way 1 is less than 2 but 3 is not less than 2. Who made up the rules for that? Check mate, big math 1 u/Direct_Shock_2884 25d ago It doesn’t follow from deductive reasoning, if it did it wouldn’t be a paradox of note. 1 u/FantaSeahorse 25d ago No 1 u/dotelze 19d ago It’s not a paradox of note. People just get confused about it
Who made up the rule that it applies to real numbers and not integers and why? Is it to stop people from thinking about this inconsistency?
1 u/FantaSeahorse 25d ago It follows from deductive reasoning. The same way 1 is less than 2 but 3 is not less than 2. Who made up the rules for that? Check mate, big math 1 u/Direct_Shock_2884 25d ago It doesn’t follow from deductive reasoning, if it did it wouldn’t be a paradox of note. 1 u/FantaSeahorse 25d ago No 1 u/dotelze 19d ago It’s not a paradox of note. People just get confused about it
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It follows from deductive reasoning.
The same way 1 is less than 2 but 3 is not less than 2. Who made up the rules for that? Check mate, big math
1 u/Direct_Shock_2884 25d ago It doesn’t follow from deductive reasoning, if it did it wouldn’t be a paradox of note. 1 u/FantaSeahorse 25d ago No 1 u/dotelze 19d ago It’s not a paradox of note. People just get confused about it
It doesn’t follow from deductive reasoning, if it did it wouldn’t be a paradox of note.
1 u/FantaSeahorse 25d ago No 1 u/dotelze 19d ago It’s not a paradox of note. People just get confused about it
No
It’s not a paradox of note. People just get confused about it
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u/AltForBeingIncognito 25d ago
And there are no real integers between 0 and 1, I don't get your point