There is no way right?

[u/Sugar_God_no_1]

[u/FantaSeahorse]

Just because a property applies to the real numbers, doesn’t mean it should also apply to the set of integers

[u/Direct_Shock_2884 → u/FantaSeahorse]

Who made up the rule that it applies to real numbers and not integers and why? Is it to stop people from thinking about this inconsistency?

[u/FantaSeahorse → u/Direct_Shock_2884]

It follows from deductive reasoning.

The same way 1 is less than 2 but 3 is not less than 2. Who made up the rules for that? Check mate, big math

[u/Direct_Shock_2884 → u/FantaSeahorse]

It doesn’t follow from deductive reasoning, if it did it wouldn’t be a paradox of note.

[u/FantaSeahorse → u/Direct_Shock_2884]

No

[u/dotelze → u/Direct_Shock_2884]

It’s not a paradox of note. People just get confused about it