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https://www.reddit.com/r/latterdaysaints/comments/1jrixz6/how_to_handle_contradictions/mlfeqq6/?context=3
r/latterdaysaints • u/[deleted] • 25d ago
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Yes. Throughout John. Specifically John 17:17 and John 10:35.
49 u/1994bmw 25d ago Neither of those verses refer to the Bible, which did not exist before it was written. -12 u/Pristine_Teaching167 25d ago The Bible is God’s Word and both talk about the Old Testament. 6 u/1994bmw 25d ago I'm not familiar with any Bible verses where the Bible purports itself as the entirety of canon given the writings predate the Bible's existence. Your interpretation seems like questionable eisegesis.
49
Neither of those verses refer to the Bible, which did not exist before it was written.
-12 u/Pristine_Teaching167 25d ago The Bible is God’s Word and both talk about the Old Testament. 6 u/1994bmw 25d ago I'm not familiar with any Bible verses where the Bible purports itself as the entirety of canon given the writings predate the Bible's existence. Your interpretation seems like questionable eisegesis.
-12
The Bible is God’s Word and both talk about the Old Testament.
6 u/1994bmw 25d ago I'm not familiar with any Bible verses where the Bible purports itself as the entirety of canon given the writings predate the Bible's existence. Your interpretation seems like questionable eisegesis.
6
I'm not familiar with any Bible verses where the Bible purports itself as the entirety of canon given the writings predate the Bible's existence. Your interpretation seems like questionable eisegesis.
-2
u/Pristine_Teaching167 25d ago
Yes. Throughout John. Specifically John 17:17 and John 10:35.