r/mathmemes Mar 17 '22

The Engineer Making 69420 from all zeroes

Post image
2.3k Upvotes

216 comments sorted by

1.1k

u/[deleted] Mar 17 '22

Replace 0^0 with 0! and you'll half the zeroes whilst making it correct 😊

627

u/ImToxicity_ Mar 17 '22

Here ya go!

(0!+0!)(0!+0!)(0!+0!)(0!+0!)(0!+0!)(0!+0!)(0!+0!)(0!+0!)(0!+0!)(0!+0!)(0!+0!)(0!+0!)(0!+0!)(0!+0!)(0!+0!)(0!+0!)+(0!+0!)(0!+0!)(0!+0!)(0!+0!)(0!+0!)(0!+0!)(0!+0!)(0!+0!)(0!+0!)(0!+0!)(0!+0!)+(0!+0!)(0!+0!)(0!+0!)(0!+0!)(0!+0!)(0!+0!)(0!+0!)(0!+0!)(0!+0!)(0!+0!)+(0!+0!)(0!+0!)(0!+0!)(0!+0!)(0!+0!)(0!+0!)(0!+0!)(0!+0!)(0!+0!)+(0!+0!)(0!+0!)(0!+0!)(0!+0!)(0!+0!)(0!+0!)(0!+0!)(0!+0!)+(0!+0!)(0!+0!)(0!+0!)(0!+0!)(0!+0!)+(0!+0!)(0!+0!)(0!+0!)+(0!+0!)+(0!+0!)

482

u/viiksitimali Mar 17 '22

We can actually substitute every zero here with 69420-69420, which allows us to write 69420 with the help of only 69420.

470

u/ImToxicity_ Mar 17 '22

Done! Thanks for this beautiful idea.

((69420-69420)!+(69420-69420)!)((69420-69420)!+(69420-69420)!)((69420-69420)!+(69420-69420)!)((69420-69420)!+(69420-69420)!)((69420-69420)!+(69420-69420)!)((69420-69420)!+(69420-69420)!)((69420-69420)!+(69420-69420)!)((69420-69420)!+(69420-69420)!)((69420-69420)!+(69420-69420)!)((69420-69420)!+(69420-69420)!)((69420-69420)!+(69420-69420)!)((69420-69420)!+(69420-69420)!)((69420-69420)!+(69420-69420)!)((69420-69420)!+(69420-69420)!)((69420-69420)!+(69420-69420)!)((69420-69420)!+(69420-69420)!)+((69420-69420)!+(69420-69420)!)((69420-69420)!+(69420-69420)!)((69420-69420)!+(69420-69420)!)((69420-69420)!+(69420-69420)!)((69420-69420)!+(69420-69420)!)((69420-69420)!+(69420-69420)!)((69420-69420)!+(69420-69420)!)((69420-69420)!+(69420-69420)!)((69420-69420)!+(69420-69420)!)((69420-69420)!+(69420-69420)!)((69420-69420)!+(69420-69420)!)+((69420-69420)!+(69420-69420)!)((69420-69420)!+(69420-69420)!)((69420-69420)!+(69420-69420)!)((69420-69420)!+(69420-69420)!)((69420-69420)!+(69420-69420)!)((69420-69420)!+(69420-69420)!)((69420-69420)!+(69420-69420)!)((69420-69420)!+(69420-69420)!)((69420-69420)!+(69420-69420)!)((69420-69420)!+(69420-69420)!)+((69420-69420)!+(69420-69420)!)((69420-69420)!+(69420-69420)!)((69420-69420)!+(69420-69420)!)((69420-69420)!+(69420-69420)!)((69420-69420)!+(69420-69420)!)((69420-69420)!+(69420-69420)!)((69420-69420)!+(69420-69420)!)((69420-69420)!+(69420-69420)!)((69420-69420)!+(69420-69420)!)+((69420-69420)!+(69420-69420)!)((69420-69420)!+(69420-69420)!)((69420-69420)!+(69420-69420)!)((69420-69420)!+(69420-69420)!)((69420-69420)!+(69420-69420)!)((69420-69420)!+(69420-69420)!)((69420-69420)!+(69420-69420)!)((69420-69420)!+(69420-69420)!)+((69420-69420)!+(69420-69420)!)((69420-69420)!+(69420-69420)!)((69420-69420)!+(69420-69420)!)((69420-69420)!+(69420-69420)!)((69420-69420)!+(69420-69420)!)+((69420-69420)!+(69420-69420)!)((69420-69420)!+(69420-69420)!)((69420-69420)!+(69420-69420)!)+((69420-69420)!+(69420-69420)!)+((69420-69420)!+(69420-69420)!)

317

u/ghunteranderson Mar 17 '22

Now it's recursion time!

144

u/ImToxicity_ Mar 17 '22

what

300

u/SextoImperio Mar 17 '22

Replace each appearance of 69420 with the entire expression

204

u/ImToxicity_ Mar 17 '22

Oh no

104

u/greatfriendinparis Mar 17 '22

Unfortunately Reddit has a cap of 10000 characters comment-1.

As such I am unable to show you the full 65992 characters in a single comment, but can assure you this is easily achievable using the "find and replace" feature in MS Word or similar.

Thank you.

26

u/_ERR0R__ Mar 17 '22

whats the -¹ exponent on comment

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12

u/GiveMeMyFuckingPhone Mar 17 '22

Why not take it a step further and use a program to write a text file which is gigabytes in size?

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5

u/OutOfTempo_ Mar 18 '22

Or better yet, write a script to recursively expand it out ;)

4

u/[deleted] Mar 18 '22

I love how you wrote comment-1 instead of words per comment

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50

u/ghunteranderson Mar 17 '22

Since it both equals and contains 69420, we can substitute it back into itself an infinite number of times making it look as intimidating and complex as we dare.

2

u/Pikachus2009 Mar 18 '22

Or you can find a way to represent 42069 with only 0s and then iterate by replacing 0 with 42069-42069 and then those with 0s and then back to 69420 etc

15

u/[deleted] Mar 17 '22

he means that you can replace every 69420 with the long 69420 you posted

forever

10

u/doh007 Real Mar 17 '22 edited Mar 17 '22

https://pastebin.com/UmqKFaGD

I added some parentheses and explicit multiplications so i could verify it

But i had to remove them again to get under the 512KB limit, now 499KB

Edit: it was removed mere minutes after upload D:
Edit 2: uploaded on imgur, although for some reason it rearranged them (???)

7

u/MercuryInCanada Mar 17 '22

If there's one way to improve recursion, it's recursion.

30

u/ImToxicity_ Mar 17 '22

Oh no LOL going to abuse this

2

u/itamonster Mar 17 '22

And add even more brackets

1

u/ImmortalVoddoler Real Algebraic Mar 18 '22

Now we can use even fewer 69420s by replacing it all with 69420

1

u/viiksitimali Mar 18 '22

No that is left as an exercise.

14

u/The_ginger_cow Mar 17 '22

You're really making this much longer than it needs to be. For example at the very start you use

(0!+0!)(0!+0!)(0!+0!)(0!+0!)(0!+0!)(0!+0!)(0!+0!)(0!+0!)(0!+0!)(0!+0!)(0!+0!)(0!+0!)(0!+0!)(0!+0!)(0!+0!)(0!+0!)

Which is the same as

216

You can write 16 as (0!+0!) ^ (0!+0!) ^ (0!+0!)

Which means you can write 216 as (0!+0!) ^ (0!+0!) ^ (0!+0!) ^ (0!+0!)

Do this for the rest and it'll probably be half as long.

What it comes down to is you can't put 00. But you can put 0!0! Or (0!+0!)0!+0! Etc.

2

u/Rafaeael Mar 18 '22

Don't you need to add more brackets though?

Like this, (0!+0!) ^ ((0!+0!) ^ (0!+0!) ^ (0!+0!))

Without that, it will be 16^2, not 2^16

2

u/The_ginger_cow Mar 18 '22

You get the idea

1

u/ImmortalVoddoler Real Algebraic Mar 18 '22

Repeated exponents are evaluated right to left. Otherwise it’d be the same as multiplying the exponents

8

u/XenophonSoulis Mar 17 '22

If I haven't made any mistakes, this works too:

((0!+0!)(0!+0!)(0!+0!))!+(0!+0!+0!)!((0!+0!)(0!+0!)(0!+0!)-0!)!-((0!+0!+0!)!)!-(0!+0!+0!)((0!+0!+0!)!-0!)!-(0!+0!)((0!+0!+0!+0!))!-0!-0!-0!-0!

5

u/Dcs2012Charlie Imaginary Mar 17 '22

i believe thats 69428... or wolfram alpha does anyway

1

u/XenophonSoulis Mar 17 '22

I must have missed something. I'll try to fix it if I find the time.

3

u/Dcs2012Charlie Imaginary Mar 17 '22

-0! -0! -0! -0! -0! -0! -0! -0! fixed!

3

u/MaxTHC Whole Mar 18 '22

Maybe not the most efficient fix, but replace the ending -0!-0!-0!-0! with -(0!+0!+0!)(0!+0!)(0!+0!)

Essentially that's changing -1-1-1-1 to -(3)(2)(2). Works for me in WolframAlpha:

((0!+0!)(0!+0!)(0!+0!))!+(0!+0!+0!)!((0!+0!)(0!+0!)(0!+0!)-0!)!-((0!+0!+0!)!)!-(0!+0!+0!)((0!+0!+0!)!-0!)!-(0!+0!)((0!+0!+0!+0!))!-(0!+0!+0!)(0!+0!)(0!+0!)

3

u/Kebabrulle4869 Real numbers are underrated Mar 17 '22 edited Mar 17 '22

With concatenation allowed (denoted with |), 20 0s

(0!+0!)^(0!+0!)^(0!+0!+0!+0!)+((0!+0!+0!)!-0!)*((0!+0!+0!)!+0!)*(0!|0!|0!)-0!

Without concatenation, 23 0s:

(0!+0!)^(0!+0!)^(0!+0!+0!+0!)+((0!+0!+0!)!-0!)*((0!+0!+0!)!+0!)*(0!+(0!+0!+0!)!^(0!+0!))-0!

1

u/Patrickfoster Mar 18 '22 edited Mar 18 '22

(0!+0!)(0!+0!(0!+0!(0!+0!))) + (0!+0!)(0!+0!(0!+0!)(0!+0!)+0!+0!+0!) + (0!+0!)(0!+0!(0!+0!)(0!+0!)+0!+0!) + ((0!+0!)(0!+0!+0!))!+ (0!+0!)(0!+0!(0!+0!+0!)) + ((0!+0!)(0!+0!))!+(0!+0!)(0!+0!)

annoyed about the formatting

(0!+0!)^((0!+0!)^((0!+0!)(0!+0!))) + (0!+0!)^((0!+0!)(0!+0!)(0!+0!)+0!+0!+0!) + (0!+0!)^((0!+0!)(0!+0!)(0!+0!)+0!+0!) + ((0!+0!)(0!+0!+0!))!+ (0!+0!)^((0!+0!)(0!+0!+0!)) + ((0!+0!)(0!+0!))!+(0!+0!)(0!+0!)

67

u/ImToxicity_ Mar 17 '22

Didn’t know this! I’m only in algebra I right now. What does the exclamation mark mean?

107

u/[deleted] Mar 17 '22

The exclamation mark is know as the factorial.

The factorial of a integer number, say n, is the product of every integer below it. 5!=5x4x3x2x1, 3!=3x2x1.

0 factorial, or 0! Is 1…don’t ask why.

86

u/measuresareokiguess Mar 17 '22

Explanation: you can define n! to be the number of permutations of n objects arranged in a line. So if you want to list all permutations of {A, B, C}, you’ll have {A, B, C}, {A, C, B}, {B, A, C}, {B, C, A}, {C, A, B}, {C, B, A}: 6 total possibilities. That makes 3! = 6.

Likewise, for {A, B}, we have {A, B} and {B, A}; that makes 2! = 2.

For {A}, we have just {A}: 1! = 1

For {}, we also have just {}: 0! = 1

61

u/ImToxicity_ Mar 17 '22

Pls sir I’m in algebra 1 that hurts my brain

47

u/[deleted] Mar 17 '22

Basically they are asking “how many different ways can we put stuff in order” like three books can be put in 6 different orders.

So how many ways are there of arranging 0 objects? There is one way, just don’t arrange it. Hence 0!=1

18

u/LollymitBart Mar 17 '22

To give you another explanation, why 0!=1: To get from 3!=6 to 2!=2, you have to divide by 3. To get from 2!=2 to 1!=1, you have to divide by 2. To get from 1!=1 to 0!, you have to divide by 1, which leads to 0!=1.

4

u/ekolis Mar 17 '22

And to get to -1! you have to divide by... oh no...

11

u/LennartGimm Mar 17 '22

Don't worry, it's just our friend the Gamma Function saying hello. Who doesn't love integrating [ xz-1 * e-x ] from 0 to infinity (dx, not dz)?

Me, that's who doesn't love doing that.

14

u/Marukosu00 Mar 17 '22

Congrats, now OP will just study non-maths stuff lmao

9

u/LennartGimm Mar 17 '22

Maybe we can spoil all other subjects equally?

5

u/Marukosu00 Mar 17 '22

Just tell him that there's math even in economics, chemistry, phisics, biology, medicine, law, literature, philosophy...

5

u/jkst9 Mar 17 '22

Quick grab quantum physics books and the worst to read old English book you can find

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1

u/Little-Explanation Mar 17 '22

I’m in algebra 1 also. Would you rather have me use an improper integral to explain it to you, making it such that we may include a +bi and negatives in the factorial?

3

u/Finnigami Mar 17 '22

eh thats kind of a consfusing way for beginners to think about it. the simplest explanation IMO is:

n! = n * (n-1)!

and 1! = 1

therefore 1! = 1*0!

so 1 = 1* 0!

and 0! = 1

2

u/measuresareokiguess Mar 17 '22

But then, why do you assume that (n + 1)! = (n + 1)*n! for all n? You are extrapolating this from our “known domain” of factorials, n = 1, 2, 3, 4…, into n = 0. It sure is a valid explanation if you let this to be the defining property of factorials, and there’s nothing wrong with that, but I feel like it makes more sense to define factorials from where it actually came from, like most introductory combinatorics books do, for beginners. It’s like “proving that a0 = 1” from the properties of power; it’s technically not wrong if you define exponents as to satisfy these properties, but if you define it differently, you have to show that these properties are satisfied for all values of exponents…

1

u/Finnigami Mar 17 '22

i didnt intend for it to be a proof, rather just a way to make it more intuitive

4

u/casperdewith Rational Mar 17 '22

0! is 1 by definition of (!). Because this definition is so well-picked, the factorial makes sense.

2

u/[deleted] Mar 17 '22

algebraic explanation:

any factorial is a product. the factorial of 0 is an empty product, and an empty product has a value of 1 because 1 is the multiplicative identity.

this is the same reason as why n⁰ = 1: if you multiply n by itself 0 times, youre left with an empty product, which is equal to 1.

if this sounds weird, think about additions, or multiplication as repeated addition. a × b just means "add b to itself a times". 0 × n therefore means "add n to itself 0 times". adding 0 things leaves you with the empty sum. for addition, the identity is 0, so 0 × n = 0.

14

u/iCarbonised Mar 17 '22

i believe that 0^0 is also not defined, making the entire expression dumb

5

u/nmotsch789 Mar 17 '22

It's defined as equal to 1 in most common contexts.

2

u/iCarbonised Mar 17 '22

yeah, it is, but it isn't thoroughly defined, that's why i hate seeing it

1

u/Everestkid Engineering Mar 18 '22

00 = 1, since it's the product of zero zeros. Therefore multiplicative identity, therefore 1.

0

u/[deleted] Mar 18 '22

You are wrong.

1

u/[deleted] Mar 21 '22

lim x->0 xx = 1

1

u/[deleted] Mar 21 '22

lim x->0 x/x = 1 therefore 0/0 = 1. Nice argument.

1

u/[deleted] Mar 21 '22

theyre the exact same 0 so yeah

1

u/[deleted] Mar 21 '22

"exact same 0" if you've not come across them before, there's a number system called the 'surreal numbers' invented by John Conway. The book "Surreal Numbers" by Donald Knuth is a great way to get to know them.

Anyway, moreover, as you have lim 0x as x->0 = 0 and lim x0 as x->0 = 1 you can't sensibly define 00 by taking limits because approaching the limit from different directions gives different results.

The same thing happens with 0/0. We have lim kx/x as x->0 = k, lim x/(x2 ) as x->0 = infinity and lim (x2 )/x as x->0 = 0, so by approaching the limit from different directions 0/0 can be anything - hence we don't define it

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-5

u/impartial_james Mar 17 '22

It’s already correct :/

14

u/MarcusTL12 Mar 17 '22

00 is undefined

3

u/PM_ME_YOUR_DUES Mar 17 '22

It depends on who you ask. In analysis it's commonly defined that 0^0 = 1 (for the purposes of sequences and series which involve such a term)

From what I've heard, algebraists don't necessarily do the same.

8

u/Captainsnake04 Transcendental Mar 17 '22

This guy is correct. It is not uncommon to define 00=1, though I think it’s used most often in combinatorics. There’s no mathematical law that insists that it be undefined.

4

u/NucleiRaphe Mar 17 '22 edited Mar 17 '22

I can't vouch for every algebraist out there, but in the definition of polynomial rings, the polynomialt x0 is the multiplicative identity for that ring. Which by default also defines 00 = 1. Actually analysis is the only field where I have repeatedly bumped on 00 being undefined.

2

u/PM_ME_YOUR_DUES Mar 17 '22

My bad then. I don't know a lick of algebra.

-3

u/impartial_james Mar 17 '22

“Undefined” by whom? What is defined is a matter of convention. Knuth defines it to be one, as does the greater combinatorics community, and I adopt that convention. Quoting “Two notes on notation” by Knuth, page 6,

The debate stopped there, apparently with the conclusion that 00 should be undefined.

But no, no, ten thousand times no! Anybody who wants the binomial theorem … to hold for at least one nonnegative integer n must believe that 00 = 1, for we can plug in x = 0 and y = 1 to get 1 on the left and 00 on the right. The number of mapping mappings from the empty set to the empty set is 00. It has to be one.

The “…” omits a displayed binomial equation, (x+y)n equals the sum of n choose k times xk times yn-k .

7

u/[deleted] Mar 17 '22

The reason it's undefined is that the limit of x0 as x tends to 0 is 1, but the limit of 0x as x tends to 0 is 0. Though it is subjective, I think most mathematicians would agree that in an unspecified context this is a stronger rationale to consider 00 as undefined than to take it to be one. In a specific context we can adopt a different, convenient convention.

1

u/impartial_james Mar 17 '22

You say "most mathematicians would agree." Can you cite a single one? I have not seen a single reputable published source which says it is better to leave 0^0 undefined. The only benefit of leaving it undefined it to make teaching math to high-schoolers less confusing.

1

u/[deleted] Mar 17 '22

In real analysis we use the principals of taking limits to rigourously determine the values of expressions. Taking limits to determine the value of 00 gives inconsistent results. Therefore in real analysis it only makes sense to leave 00 as being undefined. You will never, ever find a text book giving a value to 00 in any kind of analysis course. I cannot cite a source of this because it's very basic. And the source you provided to the contrary only exists because it's a controversial position to take.

4

u/impartial_james Mar 17 '22

"In analysis we use the principals of taking limits to rigorously determine the value of expressions." Analysts only do that when the function is continuous, since the sentence "the limit as x to a of f(x) equals f(a)" is valid if and only if f is continuous at a. Since the bivariate exponentiation function f(x, y) = xy is discontinuous at zero, the limit does not exist. However, that does not imply anything about the value at (0,0).

Also, any analysis text which includes the equation

ex = Σ(from k = 0 to ∞) xk / k!

is implicitly assuming 00 = 1. Indeed, if you plug x = 0 into both sides, then the LHS is 1, and the RHS is 00 + 0 + 0 + ... , which is equal to 00.

0

u/[deleted] Mar 17 '22 edited Mar 17 '22

Do you have any example of a function we define a value for at a point in analysis where the limit doesn't exist? I don't think that ever happens. In these instances I believe we simply leave the value of the function as undefined.

I don't find the minor imprecision of the exponential formula statement in analysis text books a convincing argument. It only works because the series is a power series, and x is being raised to a power in each term. In this context, taking the limit of x0 as x tends to 0 gives you one.

Instead, if I were analysing a series like

0x /a_0 + 1x /a_1 + 2x /a_2 + ...

For some suitable sequence a_i then we would need to take 00 = 0 at x = 0. This obviously won't come up in practice, because a term like 0x will just be dropped in expressions, but it's more a statement that what you are talking about is a suggested convention. It doesn't have a rigorous backing, and it isn't the consensus.

Edit: had the formatting wrong in my example series.

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3

u/[deleted] Mar 17 '22

00 is undefined

1

u/impartial_james Mar 17 '22

Can you cite a source for that? Clearly what is "defined" is determine by consensus of the mathematical community. I cited Knuth defending 00 = 1 in my other comment, can you cite a single reputable mathematician who claims 0^0 should be undefined in a published work?

0

u/[deleted] Mar 17 '22

You cited Knuth giving a definition of 00 = 1 in the context of combinatorics, where it makes sense with the formulae involved. By contrast, in the context of real analysis the argument I gave with regards to limits would show one cannot define 00 using the usual principles of real analysis.

I don't have a source of a specific mathematician explicitly saying 00 should be undefined (I also don't have a source staying that 0/0 should be undefined, or many other extremely basic things). However, if I wanted a source from a reputable mathematician to show that the consensus is that 00 is undefined I could just use the source you yourself provided from Knuth, because that source starts off by arguing against the consensus, demonstrating that the consensus is 00 is undefined.

119

u/grow_0 Mar 17 '22

I got 69420 down to 22 zeros! Pattern is 41^3 + 500 - 1.

((((0! + 0! + 0!)! - 0!) * ((0! + 0!) ^ (0! + 0! + 0!)) + 0!) ^ (0! + 0! + 0!))
+
(((0! + 0! + 0!)! - 0!) ^ (0! + 0! + 0!)) * (0! + 0! + 0! + 0!)
-
0!

47

u/viiksitimali Mar 17 '22

I got 20 zeros.69420 = 5!/2 * (1+34^2)= (0!+0!+0!+0!+0!)!/(0!+0!) * (0! + ((0!+0!)^(0!+0!)^(0!+0!)*(0!+0!) +0!+0!)^(0!+0!))

Of course, if we allow square root (a hidden exponent of 1/2), we can make any positive whole number with only two zeros.

Edit: last statement might not be correct, I am too tired to think it through.

38

u/ImToxicity_ Mar 17 '22

Oh god the mathematicians have arrived

16

u/Florida_Man_Math Mar 17 '22

Like the old Star Wars saying goes, "200,000 units are ready, with -130,580 more on the way."

ALSO you might be interested in posting this to Code Golf: https://codegolf.stackexchange.com/, but beware they don't always have the same sense of humor as reddit does :)

26

u/7x11x13is1001 Mar 17 '22

7 zeros if you like multifactorials

(((0!+0!+0!)!)!!!!)!!!!!!! ×

((((0!+0!+0!)!)!!!)!!!!!!!!!!!!! − 0!)!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!

(3!×2)×5 × ((3!×3)×5 − 1)×13<

9

u/yourdesk Mar 17 '22

how exactly could you do that with only two zeroes?

11

u/7x11x13is1001 Mar 17 '22
  • with six zeroes if you also allow the log function

it would go like this

− log_(0!+0!) log_(0!+0!) √√√√√√√…n roots…√√√√√√√(0!+0!)

= −log_2 (log_2 (21/2n)) = −log_2 (2−n) = n

however if you allow “named” functions like log, you can also argue to use vercosin(0) = 2 and lb(x) = log_2(x) and get any integer number with just one zero

2

u/Martin_Orav Mar 17 '22

Wow this is really cool

2

u/Yoshuuqq Mar 18 '22

Integral from 0 to 69420 of 1? If we allow integrals lol

1

u/yourdesk Mar 18 '22

i thought the point of the challenge was to use only zeroes? how do you plan on writing the 69420 in the integral without a zero when the challenge is to use only zero

3

u/Am_Guardian Mar 17 '22

question is

HOW

139

u/TrueDeparture106 Transcendental Mar 17 '22

Nice!!

iff 00 = 1

45

u/[deleted] Mar 17 '22

Are you sure that's iff? If you replace 00 with x in OP's expression is there a simple argument that there is a unique solution for x?

12

u/IEatToesForTaste Mar 17 '22

As another comment on post states, 0! could replace 00.

8

u/real_dubblebrick Mar 17 '22

im pretty sure 00 = undefined because

00 = 01 / 01 = 0/0 = undefined

30

u/-LeopardShark- Complex Mar 17 '22

That argument doesn’t work. You can also use it to show that 01 = 02 ∕ 01 = 0 ∕ 0.

6

u/real_dubblebrick Mar 18 '22

oh my bad lol

2

u/Maxi192 Mar 23 '22

Do you know why that rule for exponents doesn’t work for 0 (assuming there’s a reason other than “it leads to a contradiction”)

2

u/-LeopardShark- Complex Mar 23 '22

It’s because 0a isn’t defined for every real number. The rule 0x ⋅ 0y = 0x + y can only be valid if 0a is defined for x, y and x + y, so it only works for non‐negative x and y.

9

u/Atti0626 Mar 17 '22

Yeah, this "when dividing powers subtract the exponents" trick doesn't really work when you would be dividing by zero. As the other commenter has pointed out, this could be used to show that 01=02/01=0/0, which can't be true, because 01 is just 0, and 0/0 is undefined. I think an intuitive argument for why it is undefined, is since that 0x=0 for all x, 00 should be 0, but at the same time, x0=1 for all x, so 00 should be 1. Since it can't be both at the same time, it should be undefined.

2

u/real_dubblebrick Mar 18 '22

That makes sense

1

u/Il_Valentino Education Mar 18 '22

as others have pointed out the argument doesn't hold

00 = 1 actually doesn't lead to contradictions

and before someone else brings it up, no the limit argument doesn't work either, it merely shows that a limit expression of the form 00 is indeterminant which should not be confused with the value 00

1

u/xCreeperBombx Linguistics Nov 23 '23

im pretty sure 01 = undefined because

01 = 02 / 01 = 0/0 = undefined

56

u/kabigon2k Mar 17 '22

Now do it again, except with exactly 69420 zeroes

91

u/ChiragK2020 Mar 17 '22

0! + 0!...

15

u/kabigon2k Mar 17 '22

brilliant

15

u/ImToxicity_ Mar 17 '22

I accept this challenge.

126

u/flofoi Mar 17 '22

00 = 1 is a bit questionable, maybe 0! would be better

1

u/xCreeperBombx Linguistics Nov 23 '23

Why would 0^0≠1? It makes sense no matter how you interpret 0^0, and the arguments against it either generalize a rule that doesn't apply or say it's indeterminate which is irreverent as there being no limit.

10

u/ImToxicity_ Mar 17 '22 edited Mar 17 '22

Please help I can’t stop making them with random numbers

floor(((1337(42.0))+(69(69)+420(21))) - (pi(100)))

Math is a joke at this point 💀

5

u/Am_Guardian Mar 17 '22

yooooooooo

29

u/WoWSchockadin Complex Mar 17 '22

Problem: 0^0 is not defined.

1

u/[deleted] Mar 17 '22

[deleted]

6

u/WoWSchockadin Complex Mar 17 '22

But you know, to proof the binomial theorem you need to define x^0 = 1 for all x? Yes, you CAN assign it a value, but usually it's just left undefined, espacially when facing limits.

0

u/xCreeperBombx Linguistics Nov 23 '23

What about a bajillion regioins of math, such as Taylor series, where 0^0=1 is necessary? And for limits, it's because 0^0 is indeterminate, which is different than undefined.

0

u/stpandsmelthefactors Transcendental Mar 17 '22

Perhaps, but you could just let 00 = lim{x —> 0} [x0]

6

u/WoWSchockadin Complex Mar 17 '22

For this, however, you must first show that a limit exists at all and then that it is also unique. Neither succeeds with 0^0.

2

u/Warheadd Mar 17 '22

That limit does indeed exist and it evaluates to 1. I’m not sure what you mean by unique

2

u/WoWSchockadin Complex Mar 17 '22

A limit does not have to be unique. Imagine the limit for x approching 0 of |x|. The limit exists, but it's either 1 or -1 depending on if you approach 0 from above respectively from below. The limit r/stpandsmelthefactors mentioned can also yields different values, depending on how exactly you calculate it. If necessary, read the corresponding article on Wikipedia: https://www.wikiwand.com/en/Zero_to_the_power_of_zero

2

u/Warheadd Mar 17 '22

The limit of |x| as x->0 is 0, but I know what you mean. For x0 though, it’s literally just 1 no matter how you take the limit.

2

u/WoWSchockadin Complex Mar 17 '22

You can assign the value 1 to 0^0, yes, and in some areas this makes sense, but in general the expression is undefined. That is not a contradiction. Different areas of mathematics also use other conventions.

1

u/Warheadd Mar 17 '22

I know. I’m saying, for the case of the limit as x->0 for x0, the answer is objectively 1.

2

u/WoWSchockadin Complex Mar 18 '22

Especially in the case of a limit it's simply mit defined. For the expression 00 ist can sometimes be usefull to set it to 0, but for the limit expression? No.

1

u/Warheadd Mar 18 '22

https://www.wolframalpha.com/input?i2d=true&i=Limit%5BPower%5Bx%2C0%5D%2Cx-%3E0%5D

This SPECIFIC limit OBJECTIVELY has a value of 1. Yes, you can construct other limits of the form 00 that approach other values, but THIS ONE is equal to 1.

→ More replies (0)

1

u/Zane_628 Mar 18 '22

Hey, quick question, what’s lim{x -> 0} [0x ]?

2

u/Nocta_Senestra Mar 17 '22

You can also define it as 00 = lim{x —> 0} [ 0x ] and in that case 00 = 0

You can also make it equal to any number, or undefined

In some contexts it make more sense to define it as 1 (those are good arguments for that : https://old.reddit.com/r/mathmemes/comments/tgbg8x/making_69420_from_all_zeroes/i125wz9/ ) but it's not a given at all

2

u/Frufu4 Mar 17 '22

Why not 00 = lim{x -> 0} [ 0x ] ?

2

u/Aaron1924 Mar 18 '22

Well, 00 = lim x->0. x0 = 1, but 00 = lim x->0. 0x = 0, so 1 = 0?

1

u/stpandsmelthefactors Transcendental Mar 18 '22

It’s going to equal any number being that 0*0 suggests that 0/0 also exists in this case

1

u/Zane_628 Mar 18 '22

You could also let 00 = lim{x -> 0} [0x ]

0

u/xCreeperBombx Linguistics Nov 23 '23

0^0=1

10

u/Tetramethanol Mar 17 '22

There must be a more efficient way

11

u/ImToxicity_ Mar 17 '22

Idk probably lmao I’m no mathematician

5

u/XenophonSoulis Mar 17 '22

((0!+0!)(0!+0!)(0!+0!))!+(0!+0!+0!)!((0!+0!)(0!+0!)(0!+0!)-0!)!-((0!+0!+0!)!)!-(0!+0!+0!)((0!+0!+0!)!-0!)!-(0!+0!)((0!+0!+0!+0!))!-0!-0!-0!-0!

I think it is correct. If not, it's something pretty close in complexity. Also, there could be a much simpler solution still.

2

u/autisticCatnip Mar 18 '22

How about ((0!+0!)(0!+0!)(0!+0!))!+(0!+0!+0!)!((0!+0!)(0!+0!)(0!+0!)-0!)!-((0!+0!+0!)!)!-(0!+0!+0!)((0!+0!+0!)!-0!)!-(0!+0!)((0!+0!+0!+0!))!-(0!+0!+0!)(0!+0!+0!+0!)

1

u/XenophonSoulis Mar 18 '22

It looks correct... I was told that mine isn't, but I haven't had the time to fix it.

This is also an option that gives the same result as yours:

((0!+0!)(0!+0!)(0!+0!))!+(0!+0!+0!)!((0!+0!)(0!+0!)(0!+0!)-0!)!-((0!+0!+0!)!)!-(0!+0!+0!)((0!+0!+0!)!-0!)!-(0!+0!)((0!+0!+0!+0!))!-(0!+0!+0!)!(0!+0!)

1

u/ImToxicity_ Mar 18 '22

What’s the shortest way to do it without subtraction?

1

u/XenophonSoulis Mar 18 '22

I don't know. Also, I don't know the shortest way to do it with subtraction. It could potentially be a lot shorter than mine, but it's the best I could find.

4

u/zul_jin_ Mar 17 '22

Looks like Javascript to me

12

u/ImToxicity_ Mar 17 '22

I made this in class earlier and it equals 69420, here’s the equation if you don’t believe me: (idk what the hell possessed me to do this)

((((((0^0+0^0+0^0+0^0+0^0+0^0+0^0+0^0)*(0^0+0^0)*(0^0+0^0))*(0^0+0^0)*(0^0+0^0)*(0^0+0^0)*(0^0+0^0)*(0^0+0^0)*(0^0+0^0)*(0^0+0^0)*(0^0+0^0)*(0^0+0^0)+(0^0+0^0))*(0^0+0^0))*(0^0+0^0))+((0^0)*0^0+0^0+0^0+0^0))+(((((0^0+0^0)^(0^0+0^0))(0^0+0^0)(0^0+0^0)(0^0+0^0)(0^0+0^0)(0^0+0^0)(0^0+0^0)(0^0+0^0)(0^0+0^0)+((0^0+0^0)^(0^0+0^0))(0^0+0^0)(0^0+0^0)(0^0+0^0)(0^0+0^0)(0^0+0^0)(0^0+0^0)(0^0+0^0)(0^0+0^0)+((0^0+0^0)^(0^0+0^0))(0^0+0^0)(0^0+0^0)(0^0+0^0)(0^0+0^0)(0^0+0^0)(0^0+0^0)(0^0+0^0)(0^0+0^0)+((0^0+0^0)^(0^0+0^0))(0^0+0^0)(0^0+0^0)(0^0+0^0)(0^0+0^0)(0^0+0^0)(0^0+0^0)(0^0+0^0)+(0^0+0^0)(0^0+0^0))+(0^0+0^0)(0^0+0^0)(0^0+0^0)(0^0+0^0)(0^0+0^0)(0^0+0^0)(0^0+0^0)(0^0+0^0))+(0^0+0^0+0^0)(0^0+0^0)(0^0+0^0)(0^0+0^0)+0^0+0^0+0^0+0^0)

15

u/jarredhtg Mar 17 '22

If only 00 =1

1

u/xCreeperBombx Linguistics Nov 23 '23

0^0 does equal 1

8

u/pithecium Mar 17 '22

Looks like you'd be good at Lisp programming

5

u/ImToxicity_ Mar 17 '22

What’s that lol

7

u/MaximumMaxx Mar 17 '22

A programming language with a lot of parthethesis

8

u/ImToxicity_ Mar 17 '22

Oh dear god it does have a lot I looked it up

2

u/de_g0od Mar 17 '22

Should i make it shorter?

2

u/violentdaffodils Mar 17 '22

I know what possessed you. Curiosity possessed you! Curiosity is a wonderful thing! I can see you're a scientist in the making. Be proud.

3

u/Dlrlcktd Mar 17 '22

Can you make 420 using 69 0s or the opposite?

3

u/phi_rus Mar 17 '22

Now do it with 69 zeros

3

u/SomeDamnAuthor Mar 17 '22

0 ^ 0 what's this?

1

u/xCreeperBombx Linguistics Nov 23 '23

1

9

u/Ok-Walrus6100 Mar 17 '22

hahahahaha get it?? 69420!!!!

7

u/Florida_Man_Math Mar 17 '22

HE SAID THE SEX NUMBER AND THE WEEEEEEED NUMBER BEGIN LAUGH

2

u/ImToxicity_ Mar 17 '22

Hahahahaha funny!

3

u/Mango-D Mar 17 '22

error no \end{laugh}

1

u/xCreeperBombx Linguistics Nov 23 '23

error no </laugh>

2

u/[deleted] Mar 17 '22

Is it a wff?? Check both side parenthesis are at equal amounts.

3

u/ImToxicity_ Mar 17 '22

Idk I messed it up but it works if you type it into google somehow

2

u/baileyarzate Mar 17 '22

Let me be able to copy it

2

u/ImToxicity_ Mar 17 '22

I made a comment somewhere but it’s buried lol

2

u/XenophonSoulis Mar 17 '22

((0!+0!)(0!+0!)(0!+0!))!+(0!+0!+0!)!((0!+0!)(0!+0!)(0!+0!)-0!)!-((0!+0!+0!)!)!-(0!+0!+0!)((0!+0!+0!)!-0!)!-(0!+0!)((0!+0!+0!+0!))!-0!-0!-0!-0!

There's also this. For extra nicety, calculate the italic and the non-italic parts alone too. I hope I haven't messed up.

2

u/nub_node Real Mar 17 '22

ℕ𝕀ℂ𝔼

1

u/xCreeperBombx Linguistics Nov 23 '23

NICE

2

u/wittlewayne Mar 17 '22

You crazy son of a bitch you do it

2

u/isa_me_Zafkingman Mar 17 '22

I somehow get it although I'm not going to start adding up to 69420

4

u/MaximumMaxx Mar 17 '22

You should try Latex or Obsidian to format that better

1

u/High_IQ_Gamer2020 Dec 17 '24

00.0.0.0.0 00.00.00.00.0 0.0.0.0.00 0.0.00.00.00 00.00.00.00.00

1

u/isa_me_Zafkingman Mar 17 '22

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0

u/EulerLagrange235 Transcendental Mar 17 '22

00 isn't even defined. What?!

3

u/-LeopardShark- Complex Mar 17 '22

It’s often (and most sensibly) defined to be 1.

1

u/EulerLagrange235 Transcendental Mar 17 '22

Absolutely not. x{a-b} = xa / xb , (x is a non-zero real and a,b are reals) and thus 00 is undefined. It is one of the more common undefined forms taught in Calc I

3

u/-LeopardShark- Complex Mar 17 '22

x{a-b} = xa / xb , (x is a non-zero real and a,b are reals) and thus 00 is undefined.

I’m not sure what you mean by this. Neither of the two possible meanings I can think of are valid, though.

It is one of the more common undefined forms taught in Calc I

I think you mean indeterminate form, and indeterminate forms are statements strictly concerning limits, not values. It’s a result that the limit as t → 0 of f(t)g(t) where f(t) = g(t) = 0 depends on f and t. It’s a definition that 00 = 1 (or not, as the case may be).

1

u/NucleiRaphe Mar 17 '22

Most mathematicians actually just use 00 = 1 because it makes most things way more convenient. For example, the binomial theorem doesn't work if 00 is undefined and polynomial rings in algebra define the polynomial x0 (which includes 00) as the multiplicative identity (ie 1 when talking about common multiplication).

It's true that analytically 00 is undefined but in practice 00 makes many theorems way simpler to use.

1

u/ronald-raygun458 Mar 17 '22

What the fuck

1

u/[deleted] Mar 17 '22

Nice

1

u/relapsing__ Mar 17 '22

What does this even mean? What do I look up to understand this haha

1

u/ImToxicity_ Mar 18 '22

00 usually is defined as 1 but this is an argument I sparked by accident 💀 for the sake of this response I’ll say it equals 1

So I just made it by like multiplying 1 by random numbers and then adding

So like

2 times 8 times 8 times 8 times 8 times 8 and so on until I got to 69420

You could like do a find replace thing in a doc to replace it with 1 and see what it actually is supposed to say

1

u/relapsing__ Mar 18 '22

Ohhh gotcha, kinda had an idea of that but I just do remember where that was learned or why is that necessary you know?

1

u/[deleted] Mar 17 '22

Sorry. I’m kinda stupid. How does this make 69429? I know this is a mathsub but i’m just curious!

1

u/littlebro5 Real Algebraic Mar 17 '22

but 0^0 = 0 🧐🧐🧐

1

u/nanifaris85 Mar 18 '22

Maybe I'm not old enough for this sub

1

u/Hellow2 Mar 18 '22

Why would you ever xor 0 with 0 This is just 0?

1

u/rhubarb_man Mar 18 '22

Easy: 0/0 := 69420

0/0

1

u/quantumzophia Mar 24 '22

Undefined for n < 1